Can anyone explain to me how Jesus can be ELOHIM of Israel and YAHWEH (that would mean he is the Most High God) and yet be subordinate at the same time, as patriarchal/complementarian scholars claim in their heretical and hierarchical eternal sonship theology?
Ezekiel and John both identify Jesus as being the God of Israel. And, of course, we have the plain statement of Thomas--"My LORD and my GOD." How many Gods would a Jewish man have had?
There are many scriptural witnesses to the fact that Jesus is YAHWEH, Ezekiel 43:1-3 as compared to Revelation 1:13-15 being just two of them.
Afterward he
brought me to the gate even the gate that looks toward the east And
behold the glory of ELOHIM of Israel came from the way of the
east and his voice was like a noise of many waters and the earth shined
with his glory 3: And it was according to the appearance of the
vision which I saw even according to the vision that I saw when I came to
destroy the city and the visions were like the vision that I saw by the river
Chebar EK 1:26-28 and I fell upon my
face
Jesus is ELOHIM of
Israel whose voice is as the noise of many waters Revelation 1:13-15.
Jesus [The WORD John 1:1] is the one who was on the throne at the
river Chebar, the one Ezekiel described as the appearance and Glory
of YHWH EK 1:26-28.
There is no hierarchy within the Godhead. And as such, according to prominent complementarian scholars, there can be no gender-based hierarchy within marriage, ministry, or anywhere else.
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